I've long wondered about something, and perhaps those of you far brighter than myself can answer this.
When Nazi Germany invaded Poland in September of 1939, only a few days passed before Britain and France declared war against them. However, when the Soviet Union invaded eastern Poland just a few weeks later, there was no mention whatsoever about a declaration of war against the Soviets.
Why?
The Soviets were everybit as guilty as Germany in their offensive, hostile act against Poland; even participating in the partioning of the country prior to the end of actual combat hostilities. Germany and France had treaties with Poland--hence the declaration of war against Germany when it invaded--so why did that not apply to the Soviets?
This seems to me the first great example of sheer cowardice and self-service demonstrated by the Western Allies during World War II. It was readily apparent to both Britain and France that Germany and the Soviets were in collusion over the partioning and occupation of Poland; yet the start of World War II is associated primarily with the declaration by Britain and France against Germany.
I'd really like to have some insight on this issue, as it's nagged at me like something caught in my teeth for several decades.
Thanks, in advance |